Accurate & Verified 2023 New CS0-003 Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!
CS0-003 Certification Sample Questions certification Exam
CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) is a certification program that validates the knowledge and skills required to perform tasks related to cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam, also known as CS0-003, is designed for professionals who want to pursue a career in cybersecurity or enhance their existing skills. It is an intermediate-level certification exam that builds upon the foundational knowledge of security concepts and technologies.
NEW QUESTION # 21
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to come up with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?
- A. Enable SSO to enterprise applications
- B. Reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts
- C. Conduct thorough incident response
- D. Employ a network-based IDS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best priority based on common attack frameworks for a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach is to reduce the administrator and privileged access accounts. Administrator and privileged access accounts are accounts that have elevated permissions or capabilities to perform sensitive or critical tasks on systems or networks, such as installing software, changing configurations, accessing data, or granting access. Reducing the administrator and privileged access accounts can help minimize the attack surface, as it can limit the number of potential targets or entry points for attackers, as well as reduce the impact or damage of an attack if an account is compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A security analyst is reviewing the findings of the latest vulnerability report for a company's web application.
The web application accepts files for a Bash script to be processed if the files match a given hash. The analyst is able to submit files to the system due to a hash collision. Which of the following should the analyst suggest to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure?
- A. Replace the MD5 with digital signatures.
- B. Deploy a WAF to the front of the application.
- C. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
- D. Deploy an antivirus application on the hosting system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision-resistant hashing algorithm.
The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D) may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files, but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.
NEW QUESTION # 23
An analyst views the following log entries:
The organization has a partner vendor with hosts in the 216.122.5.x range. This partner vendor is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access. The organization prioritizes incident investigation according to the following hierarchy: unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts.
which are more important than ensuring vendor data access.
Based on the log files and the organization's priorities, which of the following hosts warrants additional investigation?
- A. 202.180.1582
- B. 134.17.188.5
- C. 121.19.30.221
- D. 216.122.5.5
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.
Based on the log files and the organization's priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is 121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor's range.
The log files show the following information:
The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server
The date and time of the access
The file path of the requested resource
The number of bytes transferred
The organization's priorities are:
Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor's range poses the highest risk to the organization.
The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and 216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor's range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.
The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization's priorities.
Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization's priorities, and there is no evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server's normal operations.
Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.
Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this host is from the partner vendor's range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to the organization's requirements.
Therefore, based on the log files and the organization's priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 24
An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?
- A. Preparation
- B. Containment
- C. Recovery
- D. Eradication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following phases of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target?
- A. Command and control
- B. Delivery
- C. Actions on objectives
- D. Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:
Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1 The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.
Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23 Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.
Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?
- A. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event
- B. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
- C. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
- D. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigation request Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified?
- A. Generate a hash value and make a backup image.
- B. Protect the device with a complex password.
- C. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data.
- D. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the original data that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with a password, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being altered or deleted. Verified Reference: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page 3291
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which of the following best describes the reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage?
- A. Scope
- B. Timeline
- C. Evidence
- D. Impact
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Impact.
The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service1.
The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects.
NEW QUESTION # 30
A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies?
- A. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity was intentional
- B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Password protect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the investigation
- C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnel with access will not be able to easily identity the case as an HR-related investigation
- D. Create a timeline of events detailinq the date stamps, user account hostname and IP information associated with the activities
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information, such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.
NEW QUESTION # 31
A security analyst is supporting an embedded software team. Which of the following is the best recommendation to ensure proper error handling at runtime?
- A. Require application fuzzing.
- B. Perform static code analysis.
- C. Enforce input validation.
- D. Perform a code review.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Performing a code review is the best recommendation to ensure proper error handling at runtime for an embedded software team. A code review is a process of examining and evaluating source code by one or more developers other than the original author. A code review can help to identify and fix any errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, or inefficiencies in the code before it is deployed or executed. A code review can also help to ensure that the code follows the best practices, standards, and guidelines for error handling at runtime .
NEW QUESTION # 32
Joe, a leading sales person at an organization, has announced on social media that he is leaving his current role to start a new company that will compete with his current employer. Joe is soliciting his current employer's customers. However, Joe has not resigned or discussed this with his current supervisor yet. Which of the following would be the best action for the incident response team to recommend?
- A. Isolate Joe's PC from the network
- B. Reimage the PC based on standard operating procedures
- C. Initiate a remote wipe of Joe's PC using mobile device management
- D. Perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The best action for the incident response team to recommend in this scenario is to perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps. This action can help avoid any potential legal or ethical issues, such as violating employee privacy rights, contractual obligations, or organizational policies. This action can also help ensure that any evidence or information collected from the employee's system or network is admissible and valid in case of any legal action or dispute. The incident response team should consult with HR or legal counsel before taking any action that may affect the employee's system or network.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following phases of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target?
- A. Command and control
- B. Delivery
- C. Actions on objectives
- D. Exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following security operations tasks are ideal for automation?
- A. Firewall IoC block actions:
Examine the firewall logs for IoCs from the most recently published zero-day exploit Take mitigating actions in the firewall to block the behavior found in the logs Follow up on any false positives that were caused by the block rules - B. Security application user errors:
Search the error logs for signs of users having trouble with the security application Look up the user's phone number Call the user to help with any questions about using the application - C. Suspicious file analysis:
- D. Email header analysis:
Check the email header for a phishing confidence metric greater than or equal to five Add the domain of sender to the block list Move the email to quarantine
Answer: D
Explanation:
Email header analysis is one of the security operations tasks that are ideal for automation. Email header analysis involves checking the email header for various indicators of phishing or spamming attempts, such as sender address spoofing, mismatched domains, suspicious subject lines, or phishing confidence metrics. Email header analysis can be automated using tools or scripts that can parse and analyze email headers and take appropriate actions based on predefined rules or thresholds
NEW QUESTION # 35
A security analyst is reviewing the following alert that was triggered by FIM on a critical system:
Which of the following best describes the suspicious activity that is occurring?
- A. The host firewall on 192.168.1.10 was disabled.
- B. A network drive was added to allow exfiltration of data
- C. A new program has been set to execute on system start
- D. A fake antivirus program was installed by the user.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A new program has been set to execute on system start is the most likely cause of the suspicious activity that is occurring, as it indicates that the malware has modified the registry keys of the system to ensure its persistence. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a tool that monitors changes to files and registry keys on a system and alerts the security analyst of any unauthorized or malicious modifications. The alert triggered by FIM shows that the malware has created a new registry key under the Run subkey, which is used to launch programs automatically when the system starts. The new registry key points to a file named "update.exe" in the Temp folder, which is likely a malicious executable disguised as a legitimate update file. Official References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-002-study-guide
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system?
- A. Mean time to detect
- B. Alert volume
- C. Quantity of intrusion attempts
- D. Number of exploits by tactic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations.
Official References:
https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack
NEW QUESTION # 37
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