Latest CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test Questions, CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Exam Dumps
Apr-2024 Pass CompTIA CS0-003 Exam in First Attempt Easily
NEW QUESTION # 127
A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the security analyst use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?
- A. ; printenv
- B. cat /proc/self/
- C. curl localhost
- D. /etc/ shadow
Answer: D
Explanation:
/etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server.
Therefore, the security analyst can look for /etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
NEW QUESTION # 128
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:
Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?
- A. SSRF
- B. XSS
- C. Directory traversal
- D. XXE
Answer: B
Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website.
XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:
* https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
* https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
* https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.htm
NEW QUESTION # 129
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
- B. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
- C. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
- D. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions.
The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 130
During the forensic analysis of a compromised machine, a security analyst discovers some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors. After extracting the strings, the analyst finds unexpected content. Which of the following is the next step the analyst should take?
- A. Validate the binaries' hashes from a trusted source.
- B. Run an antivirus against the binaries to check for malware.
- C. Use file integrity monitoring to validate the digital signature
- D. Only allow binaries on the approve list to execute.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Validating the binaries' hashes from a trusted source is the next step the analyst should take after discovering some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors and finding unexpected content in their strings. A hash is a fixed-length value that uniquely represents the contents of a file or message. By comparing the hashes of the binaries on the compromised machine with the hashes of the original or legitimate binaries from a trusted source, such as the software vendor or repository, the analyst can determine whether the binaries have been modified or replaced by malicious code. If the hashes do not match, it indicates that the binaries have been tampered with and may contain malware.
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following describes the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis?
- A. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented.
- B. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting.
- C. The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event
- D. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event is the best reason for conducting a root cause analysis, as it reflects the main goal and benefit of this problem-solving approach. A root cause analysis (RCA) is a process of discovering the root causes of problems in order to identify appropriate solutions. A root cause is the core issue or factor that sets in motion the entire cause-and-effect chain that leads to the problem. A root cause analysis assumes that it is more effective to systematically prevent and solve underlying issues rather than just treating symptoms or putting out fires. A root cause analysis can be performed using various methods, tools, and techniques that help to uncover the causes of problems, such as events and causal factor analysis, change analysis, barrier analysis, or fishbone diagrams. A root cause analysis can help to improve quality, performance, safety, or efficiency by finding and eliminating the sources of problems. The other options are not as accurate as the root cause analysis identifies the contributing items that facilitated the event, as they do not capture the essence or value of conducting a root cause analysis. The root cause analysis ensures that proper timelines were documented is a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting timelines can help to establish the sequence of events and actions that led to the problem, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis allows the incident to be properly documented for reporting is also a possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Documenting and reporting incidents can help to communicate and share information about problems and solutions, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes. The root cause analysis develops recommendations to improve the process is another possible outcome or benefit of conducting a root cause analysis, but it is not the best reason for doing so. Developing recommendations can help to implement solutions and prevent future problems, but it does not necessarily identify or address the root causes.
NEW QUESTION # 132
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
see the answer below in explanation
Explanation:
Answer below images
NEW QUESTION # 133
The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan:
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan?
- A. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt
- B. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe
- C. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt
- D. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:
Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?
- A. Log entry 1
- B. Log entry 3
- C. Log entry 2
- D. Log entry 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:
https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/
https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/
NEW QUESTION # 135
A payroll department employee was the target of a phishing attack in which an attacker impersonated a department director and requested that direct deposit information be updated to a new account. Afterward, a deposit was made into the unauthorized account. Which of the following is one of the first actions the incident response team should take when they receive notification of the attack?
- A. Assign security awareness training to the employee involved in the incident.
- B. Scan the employee's computer with virus and malware tools.
- C. Review the actions taken by the employee and the email related to the event
- D. Contact human resources and recommend the termination of the employee.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In case of a phishing attack, it's crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact. Reference: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255.
NEW QUESTION # 136
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:
Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?
- A. SSRF
- B. XSS
- C. Directory traversal
- D. XXE
Answer: B
Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website. XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official Reference:
https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.html
NEW QUESTION # 137
The security team reviews a web server for XSS and runs the following Nmap scan:
Which of the following most accurately describes the result of the scan?
- A. An output of characters > and " as the parameters used m the attempt
- B. The vulnerable parameter and unfiltered or encoded characters passed > and " as unsafe
- C. The vulnerable parameter and characters > and " with a reflected XSS attempt
- D. The vulnerable parameter ID hccp://l72.31.15.2/1.php?id-2 and unfiltered characters returned
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user's browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2.
NEW QUESTION # 138
A technician is analyzing output from a popular network mapping tool for a PCI audit:
Which of the following best describes the output?
- A. The host is allowing insecure cipher suites.
- B. The host is running excessive cipher suites.
- C. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed
- D. The host is not up or responding.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that should not be used.
Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS.
NEW QUESTION # 139
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?
- A. True negative
- B. False negative
- C. False positive
- D. True positive
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.
NEW QUESTION # 140
A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:
Which of the following did the consultant do?
- A. Implemented clickjacking
- B. Implemented privilege escalation
- C. Implanted a backdoor
- D. Patched the web server
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says "Exit". However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
References:
* 1 What Is a Backdoor & How to Prevent Backdoor Attacks (2023)
* 2 What is Clickjacking? Tutorial & Examples | Web Security Academy
* 3 What Is Privilege Escalation and How It Relates to Web Security | Acunetix
* 4 What Is Patching? | Best Practices For Patch Management - cWatch Blog
NEW QUESTION # 141
An organization announces that all employees will need to work remotely for an extended period of time. All employees will be provided with a laptop and supported hardware to facilitate this requirement. The organization asks the information security division to reduce the risk during this time. Which of the following is a technical control that will reduce the risk of data loss if a laptop is lost or stolen?
- A. Requiring the use of the corporate VPN
- B. Requiring the screen to be locked after five minutes of inactivity
- C. Requiring full disk encryption
- D. Requiring the laptop to be locked in a cabinet when not in use
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technical control that encrypts all the data on a disk drive, including the operating system and applications. FDE prevents unauthorized access to the data if the disk drive is lost or stolen, as it requires a password or key to decrypt the data. FDE can be implemented using software or hardware solutions and can protect data at rest on laptops and other devices. The other options are not technical controls or do not reduce the risk of data loss if a laptop is lost or stolen. Reference: CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 10; https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/bitlocker/bitlocker-overview
NEW QUESTION # 142
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. Which of the following recommendations should the company align their security controls around?
- A. OWASP
- B. Diamond Model Of Intrusion Analysis
- C. OSSTMM
- D. MITRE ATT&CK
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. MITRE ATT&CK.
MITRE ATT&CK is a framework that maps the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of various threat actors and groups, based on real-world observations and data. MITRE ATT&CK can help a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to map all the attack vectors that the company faces each day, as well as to align their security controls around the most relevant and prevalent threats. MITRE ATT&CK can also help the CISO to assess the effectiveness and maturity of their security posture, as well as to identify and prioritize the gaps and improvements .
The other options are not the best recommendations for mapping all the attack vectors that the company faces each day. OSSTMM (Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual) (A) is a methodology that provides guidelines and best practices for conducting security testing and auditing, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis (B) is a model that analyzes the relationships and interactions between four elements of an intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model can help understand the characteristics and context of an intrusion, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a project that provides resources and tools for improving the security of web applications, but it does not map the TTPs of threat actors or groups.
NEW QUESTION # 143
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?
- A. Enable SSO to the cloud applications
- B. Deploy an API gateway
- C. Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
- D. Configure MFA with strict access
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 144
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