[Dec 13, 2021] Valid SSCP Test Answers & ISC SSCP Exam PDF
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NEW QUESTION 611
Which of the following would be the best reason for separating the test and development environments?
- A. To control the stability of the test environment.
- B. To segregate user and development staff.
- C. To secure access to systems under development.
- D. To restrict access to systems under test.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
The test environment must be controlled and stable in order to ensure that development projects are tested in a realistic environment which, as far as possible, mirrors the live environment.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor 2002 review manual, chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition, Implementation and Maintenance (page
309).
NEW QUESTION 612
An application layer firewall is also called a:
- A. A Transport Layer Gateway.
- B. Proxy
- C. A Presentation Layer Gateway.
- D. A Session Layer Gateway.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An application layer firewall can also be called a proxy.
"A presentation layer gateway" is incorrect. A gateway connects two unlike environments and is usually required to translate between diffferent types of applications or protocols. This is not the function of a firewall.
"A session layer gateway" is incorrect. A gateway connects two unlike environments and is usually required to translate between diffferent types of applications or protocols. This is not the function of a firewall.
"A transport layer gateway" is incorrect. A gateway connects two unlike environments and is usually required to translate between diffferent types of applications or protocols. This is not the function of a firewall.
References:
CBK, p. 467 AIO3, pp. 486 - 490, 960
NEW QUESTION 613
Which of the following is NOT a common backup method?
- A. Differential backup method
- B. Incremental backup method
- C. Daily backup method
- D. Full backup method
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
A daily backup is not a backup method, but defines periodicity at which backups are made. There can be daily full, incremental or differential backups.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
69).
NEW QUESTION 614
What is defined as the rules for communicating between computers on a Local Area Network (LAN)?
- A. LAN Media Access methods
- B. LAN transmission methods
- C. Contention Access Control
- D. LAN topologies
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Media contention occurs when two or more network devices have data to send at the same time. Because multiple devices cannot talk on the network simultaneously, some type of method must be used to allow one device access to the network media at a time.
This is done in two main ways: carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD) and token passing.
In networks using CSMA/CD technology such as Ethernet, network devices contend for the network media.
When a device has data to send, it first listens to see if any other device is currently using the network. If not, it starts sending its data. After finishing its transmission, it listens again to see if a collision occurred. A collision occurs when two devices send data simultaneously. When a collision happens, each device waits a random length of time before resending its data. In most cases, a collision will not occur again between the two devices. Because of this type of network contention, the busier a network becomes, the more collisions occur.
This is why performance of Ethernet degrades rapidly as the number of devices on a single network increases.
In token-passing networks such as Token Ring and FDDI, a special network frame called a token is passed around the network from device to device. When a device has data to send, it must wait until it has the token and then sends its data. When the data transmission is complete, the token is released so that other devices may use the network media. The main advantage of token-passing networks is that they are deterministic. In other words, it is easy to calculate the maximum time that will pass before a device has the opportunity to send data. This explains the popularity of token-passing networks in some real-time environments such as factories, where machinery must be capable of communicating at a determinable interval.
For CSMA/CD networks, switches segment the network into multiple collision domains. This reduces the number of devices per network segment that must contend for the media. By creating smaller collision domains, the performance of a network can be increased significantly without requiring addressing changes.
The following are incorrect answers:
LAN topologies: Think of a topology as a network's virtual shape or structure. This shape does not necessarily correspond to the actual physical layout of the devices on the network. For example, the computers on a home LAN may be arranged in a circle in a family room, but it would be highly unlikely to find a ring topology there.
Common topologies are: bus, ring, star or meshed. See THIS LINK for more information.
LAN transmission methods: refer to the way packets are sent on the network and are either unicast, multicast or broadcast. See THIS LINK for more information.
Contention Access Control: This is a bogus detractor.
Contention is a real term but Contention Access Control is just made up. Contention methods is very closely related to Media Access Control methods. In communication networks, contention is a media access method that is used to share a broadcast medium. In contention, any computer in the network can transmit data at any time (first come-first served). This system breaks down when two computers attempt to transmit at the same time. This is a case of collision. To avoid collision, carrier sensing mechanism is used. Here each computer listens to the network before attempting to transmit. If the network is busy, it waits until network quiets down. In carrier detection, computers continue to listen to the network as they transmit. If computer detects another signal that interferes with the signal it is sending, it stops transmitting. Both computers then wait for random amount of time and attempt to transmit. Contention methods are most popular media access control method on LANs.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Introduction_to_LAN_Protocols#LAN_Media-Access_Methods
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contention_%28telecommunications%29
NEW QUESTION 615
What is NOT true about a one-way hashing function?
- A. The results of a one-way hash is a message digest
- B. It provides authentication of the message
- C. It provides integrity of the message
- D. A hash cannot be reverse to get the message used to create the hash
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A one way hashing function can only be use for the integrity of a message and not for authentication or confidentiality. Because the hash creates just a fingerprint of the message which cannot be reversed and it is also very difficult to create a second message with the same hash.
A hash by itself does not provide Authentication. It only provides a weak form or integrity. It would be possible for an attacker to perform a Man-In-The-Middle attack where both the hash and the digest could be changed without the receiver knowing it.
A hash combined with your session key will produce a Message Authentication Code (MAC) which will provide you with both authentication of the source and integrity. It is sometimes referred to as a Keyed Hash.
A hash encrypted with the sender private key produce a Digital Signature which provide authentication, but not the hash by itself.
Hashing functions by themselves such as MD5, SHA1, SHA2, SHA-3 does not provide authentication.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page
548
NEW QUESTION 616
What distinguishes a hacker / cracker from a phreak?
- A. Phreaks specifically target data networks
- B. Hackers and crackers specifically target telephone networks
- C. Phreaks specifically target telephone networks
- D. Phreaks cause harm, hackers and crackers do not
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 617
What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure?
- A. The amount of light reaching the retina
- B. The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye
- C. The amount of light reflected by the retina
- D. The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye
Answer: B
Explanation:
The retina, a thin nerve (1/50th of an inch) on the back of the eye, is the part
of the eye which senses light and transmits impulses through the optic nerve to the brain -
the equivalent of film in a camera. Blood vessels used for biometric identification are
located along the neural retina, the outermost of retina's four cell layers.
The following answers are incorrect:
The amount of light reaching the retina The amount of light reaching the retina is not used
in the biometric scan of the retina.
The amount of light reflected by the retina The amount of light reflected by the retina is not
used in the biometric scan of the retina.
The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye This is a distractor
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Reference: Retina Scan Technology.
ISC2 Official Guide to the CBK, 2007 (Page 161)
NEW QUESTION 618
What is the role of IKE within the IPsec protocol?
- A. data encryption
- B. peer authentication and key exchange
- C. data signature
- D. enforcing quality of service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference: RFC 2409: The Internet Key Exchange (IKE); DORASWAMY, Naganand & HARKINS, Dan, Ipsec:
The New Security Standard for the Internet, Intranets, and Virtual Private Networks, 1999, Prentice Hall PTR; SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.
NEW QUESTION 619
Which of the following tasks is NOT usually part of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
- A. Calculate how long these functions can survive without these resources.
- B. Identify the company's critical business functions.
- C. Develop a mission statement.
- D. Calculate the risk for each different business function.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Business Impact Analysis is critical for the development of a business
continuity plan (BCP). It identifies risks, critical processes and resources needed in case of
recovery and quantifies the impact a disaster will have upon the organization. The
development of a mission statement is normally performed before the BIA.
A BIA (business impact analysis ) is considered a functional analysis, in which a team
collects data through interviews and documentary sources; documents business functions,
activities, and transactions ; develops a hierarchy of business functions; and finally applies
a classification scheme to indicate each individual function's criticality level.
BIA Steps
The more detailed and granular steps of a BIA are outlined here:
1.Select individuals to interview for data gathering.
2.Create data-gathering techniques (surveys, questionnaires, qualitative and quantitative approaches).
3.Identify the company's critical business functions.
4.Identify the resources these functions depend upon.
5.Calculate how long these functions can survive without these resources.
6.Identify vulnerabilities and threats to these functions.
7.Calculate the risk for each different business function.
8.Document findings and report them to management.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third
Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Location 21076). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 905-910).
McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 620
Which of the following is the most critical item from a disaster recovery point of view?
- A. Hardware/Software
- B. Software Applications
- C. Data
- D. Communication Links
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The most important point is ALWAYS the data. Everything else can be replaced or repaired.
Data MUST be backed up, backups must be regularly tested, because once it is truly lost, it is lost forever.
The goal of disaster recovery is to minimize the effects of a disaster or disruption. It means taking the necessary steps to ensure that the resources, personnel, and business processes are able to resume operation in a timely manner . This is different from continuity planning, which provides methods and procedures for dealing with longer-term outages and disasters.
The goal of a disaster recovery plan is to handle the disaster and its ramifications right after the disaster hits; the disaster recovery plan is usually very information technology (IT)- focused. A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is carried out when everything is still in emergency mode, and everyone is scrambling to get all critical systems back online.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 887). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
Veritas eLearning CD - Introducing Disaster Recovery Planning, Chapter 1.
NEW QUESTION 621
What Orange Book security rating is reserved for systems that have been evaluated but fail to meet the criteria and requirements of the higher divisions?
- A. D
- B. E
- C. A
- D. F
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
D or "minimal protection" is reserved for systems that were evaluated under the TCSEC but did not meet the requirements for a higher trust level.
A is incorrect. A or "Verified Protectection" is the highest trust level under the TCSEC.
E is incorrect. The trust levels are A - D so "E" is not a valid trust level.
F is incorrect. The trust levels are A - D so "F" is not a valid trust level.
CBK, pp. 329 - 330
AIO3, pp. 302 - 306
NEW QUESTION 622
Which of the following media is MOST resistant to EMI interference?
- A. fiber optic
- B. twisted pair
- C. microwave
- D. coaxial cable
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A fiber optic cable is a physical medium that is capable of conducting modulated light trasmission. Fiber optic cable carries signals as light waves, thus creating higher trasmission speeds and greater distances due to less attenuation. This type of cabling is more difficult to tap than other cabling and is most resistant to interference, especially EMI.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
103).
NEW QUESTION 623
Which of the following is often the greatest challenge of distributed computing solutions?
- A. security
- B. usability
- C. scalability
- D. heterogeneity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
The correct answer to this "security". It is a major factor in deciding if a centralized or decentralized environment is more appropriate.
Example: In a centralized computing environment, you have a central server and workstations (often "dumb terminals") access applications, data, and everything else from that central servers. Therefore, the vast majority of your security resides on a centrally managed server. In a decentralized (or distributed) environment, you have a collection of PC's each with their own operating systems to maintain, their own software to maintain, local data storage requiring protection and backup. You may also have PDA's and "smart phones", data watches, USB devices of all types able to store data... the list gets longer all the time.
It is entirely possible to reach a reasonable and acceptable level of security in a distributed environment. But doing so is significantly more difficult, requiring more effort, more money, and more time.
The other answers are not correct because:
scalability - A distributed computing environment is almost infinitely scalable. Much more so than a centralized environment. This is therefore a bad answer.
heterogeneity - Having products and systems from multiple vendors in a distributed environment is significantly easier than in a centralized environment. This would not be a "challenge of distributed computing solutions" and so is not a good answer.
usability - This is potentially a challenge in either environment, but whether or not this is a problem has very little to do with whether it is a centralized or distributed environment. Therefore, this would not be a good answer.
Reference:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 313-314
All in One Third Edition page: (unavailable at this time)
NEW QUESTION 624
Of the reasons why a Disaster Recovery plan gets outdated, which of the following is not true?
- A. Infrastructure and environment changes
- B. Large plans can take a lot of work to maintain
- C. Personnel turnover
- D. Continous auditing makes a Disaster Recovery plan irrelevant
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Although a auditing is a part of corporate security, it in no way supercedes the requirments for a disaster recovery plan. All others can be blamed for a plan going out of date.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter
9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 609).
NEW QUESTION 625
In the statement below, fill in the blank:
Law enforcement agencies must get a warrant to search and seize an individual's property, as stated in the
_____ Amendment.
- A. Fourth.
- B. Third.
- C. Second.
- D. First.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
The Fourth Amendment does not apply to a seizure or an arrest by private citizens.
Search and seizure activities can get tricky depending on what is being searched for and where.
For example, American citizens are protected by the Fourth Amendment against unlawful search and seizure, so law enforcement agencies must have probable cause and request a search warrant from a judge or court before conducting such a search.
The actual search can only take place in the areas outlined by the warrant. The Fourth Amendment does not apply to actions by private citizens unless they are acting as police agents. So, for example, if Kristy's boss warned all employees that the management could remove files from their computers at any time, and her boss was not a police officer or acting as a police agent, she could not successfully claim that her Fourth Amendment rights were violated. Kristy's boss may have violated some specific privacy laws, but he did not violate Kristy's Fourth Amendment rights.
In some circumstances, a law enforcement agent may seize evidence that is not included in the warrant, such as if the suspect tries to destroy the evidence. In other words, if there is an impending possibility that evidence might be destroyed, law enforcement may quickly seize the evidence to prevent its destruction. This is referred to as exigent circumstances, and a judge will later decide whether the seizure was proper and legal before allowing the evidence to be admitted. For example, if a police officer had a search warrant that allowed him to search a suspect's living room but no other rooms, and then he saw the suspect dumping cocaine down the toilet, the police officer could seize the cocaine even though it was in a room not covered under his search warrant. After evidence is gathered, the chain of custody needs to be enacted and enforced to make sure the evidence's integrity is not compromised.
All other choices were only detractors.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1057). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION 626
Which of the following backup method must be made regardless of whether Differential or Incremental methods are used?
- A. Full Backup Method.
- B. Incremental backup method.
- C. Supplemental backup method.
- D. Tape backup method.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Full Backup must be made regardless of whether Differential or
Incremental methods are used.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 69.
And: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne,
2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (pages 617-619).
NEW QUESTION 627
Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP Model ensures error-free delivery and packet sequencing?
- A. Host-to-host
- B. Internet layer
- C. Network access layer
- D. Application layer
Answer: A
Explanation:
This layer of the DoD Model is also sometimes called Transport in some books but the proper name is Host-to-Host as per the RFC document.
The host-to-host layer provides for reliable end-to-end communications, ensures the data's error-free delivery, handles the data's packet sequencing, and maintains the data's integrity.
It is comparable to the transport layer of the OSI model.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_protocol_suite and http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc786900%28v=ws.10%29.aspx and KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 85).
NEW QUESTION 628
Which of the following OSI layers provides routing and related services?
- A. Session Layer
- B. Presentation Layer
- C. Network Layer
- D. Physical Layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Network Layer performs network routing functions.
The following answers are incorrect:
Presentation Layer. Is incorrect because the Presentation Layer transforms the data to provide a standard interface for the Application layer.
Session Layer. Is incorrect because the Session Layer controls the dialogues/connections (sessions) between computers.
Physical Layer. is incorrect because the Physical Layer defines all the electrical and physical specifications for devices.
NEW QUESTION 629
Which of the following backup methods is most appropriate for off-site archiving?
- A. Off-site backup method
- B. Differential backup method
- C. Incremental backup method
- D. Full backup method
Answer: D
Explanation:
The full backup makes a complete backup of every file on the system every
time it is run. Since a single backup set is needed to perform a full restore, it is appropriate
for off-site archiving.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3:
Telecommunications and Network Security (page 69).
NEW QUESTION 630
Which of the following best ensures accountability of users for the actions taken within a system or domain?
- A. Credentials
- B. Identification
- C. Authentication
- D. Authorization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Details:
The only way to ensure accountability is if the subject is uniquely identified and
authenticated. Identification alone does not provide proof the user is who they claim to be.
After showing proper credentials, a user is authorized access to resources.
References:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002,
Chapter 4: Access Control (page 126).
NEW QUESTION 631
IT security measures should:
- A. Be tailored to meet organizational security goals.
- B. Make sure that every asset of the organization is well protected.
- C. Not be developed in a layered fashion.
- D. Be complex
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
In general, IT security measures are tailored according to an organization's unique needs. While numerous factors, such as the overriding mission requirements, and guidance, are to be considered, the fundamental issue is the protection of the mission or business from IT security-related, negative impacts. Because IT security needs are not uniform, system designers and security practitioners should consider the level of trust when connecting to other external networks and internal sub-domains. Recognizing the uniqueness of each system allows a layered security strategy to be used - implementing lower assurance solutions with lower costs to protect less critical systems and higher assurance solutions only at the most critical areas.
The more complex the mechanism, the more likely it may possess exploitable flaws. Simple mechanisms tend to have fewer exploitable flaws and require less maintenance. Further, because configuration management issues are simplified, updating or replacing a simple mechanism becomes a less intensive process.
Security designs should consider a layered approach to address or protect against a specific threat or to reduce a vulnerability. For example, the use of a packet-filtering router in conjunction with an application gateway and an intrusion detection system combine to increase the work-factor an attacker must expend to successfully attack the system. Adding good password controls and adequate user training improves the system's security posture even more.
The need for layered protections is especially important when commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS) products are used. Practical experience has shown that the current state-of-the-art for security quality in COTS products does not provide a high degree of protection against sophisticated attacks. It is possible to help mitigate this situation by placing several controls in series, requiring additional work by attackers to accomplish their goals.
Source: STONEBURNER, Gary & al, National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-27, Engineering Principles for Information Technology Security (A Baseline for Achieving Security), June 2001 (pages 9-10).
NEW QUESTION 632
The CERT (Computer Emergency Response Team) was created in response to what famous security problem?
- A. The Morris worm
- B. The ILoveYou virus
- C. SATAN
- D. CodeRed
- E. KevinMitnik
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 633
PGP uses which of the following to encrypt data?
- A. An X.509 digital certificate
- B. A symmetric key distribution system
- C. A symmetric encryption algorithm
- D. An asymmetric encryption algorithm
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Notice that the question specifically asks what PGP uses to encrypt For this, PGP uses an symmetric key algorithm. PGP then uses an asymmetric key algorithm to encrypt the session key and then send it securely to the receiver. It is an hybrid system where both types of ciphers are being used for different purposes.
Whenever a question talks about the bulk of the data to be sent, Symmetric is always best to choice to use because of the inherent speed within Symmetric Ciphers. Asymmetric ciphers are 100 to 1000 times slower than Symmetric Ciphers.
The other answers are not correct because:
"An asymmetric encryption algorithm" is incorrect because PGP uses a symmetric algorithm to encrypt data.
"A symmetric key distribution system" is incorrect because PGP uses an asymmetric algorithm for the distribution of the session keys used for the bulk of the data.
"An X.509 digital certificate" is incorrect because PGP does not use X.509 digital certificates to encrypt the data, it uses a session key to encrypt the data.
References:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 275
All in One Third Edition page: 664 - 665
NEW QUESTION 634
A salami attack refers to what type of activity?
- A. Committing computer crimes in such small doses that they almost go unnoticed
- B. Setting a program to attack a website at11:59 am on New Year's Eve
- C. Embedding or hiding data inside of a legitimate communication - a picture, etc.
- D. Hijacking a session and stealing passwords
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 635
......
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