Updated Sep-2023 Test Engine to Practice PCCET Dumps & Practice Exam [Q55-Q77]

Updated Sep-2023 Test Engine to Practice PCCET Dumps & Practice Exam

Dumps Collection PCCET Test Engine Dumps Training With 145 Questions

NEW QUESTION # 55
Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

A. URL Filtering
B. Threat Prevention
C. WildFire
D. DNS Security

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The URL Filtering service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next-generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites that host malware and phishing pages.

NEW QUESTION # 56
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

A. Star Topology
B. Spine Leaf Topology
C. Bus Topology
D. Mesh Topology

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 57
Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

A. VLF
B. 4G/LTE
C. L-band
D. 2G/2.5G

Answer: C

Explanation:
2G/2.5G: 2G connectivity remains a prevalent and viable IoT connectivity option due to the low cost of 2G modules, relatively long battery life, and large installed base of
2G sensors and M2M applications.
* 3G: IoT devices with 3G modules use either Wideband Code Division Multiple Access (W-CDMA) or Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+ and Advanced HSPA+) to achieve data transfer rates of 384Kbps to 168Mbps.
* 4G/Long-Term Evolution (LTE): 4G/LTE networks enable real-time IoT use cases, such as autonomous vehicles, with 4G LTE Advanced Pro delivering speeds in excess of
3Gbps and less than 2 milliseconds of latency.
* 5G: 5G cellular technology provides significant enhancements compared to 4G/LTE networks and is backed by ultra-low latency, massive connectivity and scalability for IoT devices, more efficient use of the licensed spectrum, and network slicing for application traffic prioritization.

NEW QUESTION # 58
Which statement describes DevOps?

A. DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process
B. DevOps is its own separate team
C. DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams
D. DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

Answer: A

Explanation:
DevOps is not:
* A combination of the Dev and Ops teams: There still are two teams; they just operate in a communicative, collaborative way.
* Its own separate team: There is no such thing as a "DevOps engineer." Although some companies may appoint a "DevOps team" as a pilot when trying to transition to a DevOps culture, DevOps refers to a culture where developers, testers, and operations personnel cooperate throughout the entire software delivery lifecycle.
* A tool or set of tools: Although there are tools that work well with a DevOps model or help promote DevOps culture, DevOps ultimately is a strategy, not a tool.
* Automation: Although automation is very important for a DevOps culture, it alone does not define DevOps.

NEW QUESTION # 59
Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

A. Credit card number
B. Trade secret
C. A symmetric encryption key
D. National security information

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 60
TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

A. Session
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Application

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 61
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

A. SecDevOps
B. NetOps
C. SecOps
D. DevOps

Answer: C

Explanation:
Security operations (SecOps) is a necessary function for protecting the digital way of life, for global businesses and customers. SecOps requires continuous improvement in operations to handle fast-evolving threats. SecOps needs to arm security operations professionals with high-fidelity intelligence, contextual data, and automated prevention workflows to quickly identify and respond to these threats. SecOps must leverage automation to reduce strain on analysts and execute the Security Operation Center's (SOC) mission to identify, investigate, and mitigate threats.

NEW QUESTION # 62
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

A. control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances
B. control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol
C. control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing
D. control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 63
On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

A. full-disk encryption
B. endpoint-based firewall
C. strong user passwords
D. software patches

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
New software vulnerabilities and exploits are discovered all the time and thus diligent software patch management is required by system and security administrators in every organization.

NEW QUESTION # 64
Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

A. Star Topology
B. Mesh Topology
C. Spine Leaf Topology
D. Bus Topology

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 65
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?

A. Threat Prevention
B. WildFire
C. DNS Security
D. URL Filtering

Answer: B

Explanation:
"The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment. WildFire automatically disseminates updated protections in near-real time to immediately prevent threats from spreading; this occurs without manual intervention"

NEW QUESTION # 66
In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

A. Computer
B. Cloud
C. Infrastructure
D. Switch

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 67
Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

A. Path Vector
B. Hop Count
C. Shortest Path
D. Split Horizon

Answer: B

Explanation:
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an example of a distance-vector routing protocol that uses hop count as its routing metric. To prevent routing loops, in which packets effectively get stuck bouncing between various router nodes, RIP implements a hop limit of 15, which limits the size of networks that RIP can support. After a data packet crosses 15 router nodes (hops) between a source and a destination, the destination is considered unreachable.

NEW QUESTION # 68
Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

A. Event Viewer
B. Task Scheduler
C. Timeline inspector
D. Task Manager

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 69
Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

A. Terminal shell types on endpoints
B. /etc/shadow files
C. Services
D. Users

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
A directory service is a database that contains information about users, resources, and services in a network.

NEW QUESTION # 70
In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

A. reduces network latency
B. causes security policies to be complex
C. simplifies security policy management
D. improves security policy application ID enforcement

Answer: B

Explanation:
Multiple policies, no policy reconciliation tools: Sequential traffic analysis (stateful inspection, application control, intrusion prevention system (IPS), anti-malware, etc.) in traditional data center security solutions requires a corresponding security policy or profile, often using multiple management tools. The result is that your security policies become convoluted as you build and manage a firewall policy with source, destination, user, port, and action; an application control policy with similar rules; and any other threat prevention rules required. Multiple security policies that mix positive (firewall) and negative (application control, IPS, and anti-malware) control models can cause security holes by missing traffic and/or not identifying

NEW QUESTION # 71
How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

A. slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development
B. reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code
C. costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources
D. prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
List three advantages of serverless computing over
CaaS: - Reduce costs - Increase agility - Reduce operational overhead

NEW QUESTION # 72
What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

A. playbooks
B. algorithms
C. Cloud Access Security Broker
D. Security Incident and Event Management

Answer: A

Explanation:
SOAR tools ingest aggregated alerts from detection sources (such as SIEMs, network security tools, and mailboxes) before executing automatable, process-driven playbooks to enrich and respond to these alerts.

NEW QUESTION # 73
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

A. Static
B. Pre-exploit protection
C. Dynamic
D. Bare-metal

Answer: C

Explanation:
The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment.

NEW QUESTION # 74
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

A. Multiplexing
B. Multi-tenancy
C. Dedicated Hosts
D. Dedicated Networks

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Multitenancy is a key characteristic of the public cloud, and an important risk. Although public cloud providers strive to ensure isolation between their various customers, the infrastructure and resources in the public cloud are shared. Inherent risks in a shared environment include misconfigurations, inadequate or ineffective processes and controls, and the "noisy neighbor" problem (excessive network traffic, disk I/O, or processor use can negatively impact other customers sharing the same resource). In hybrid and multicloud environments that connect numerous public and/or private clouds, the delineation becomes blurred, complexity increases, and security risks become more challenging to address.

NEW QUESTION # 75
Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

A. people
B. business
C. interfaces
D. technology

Answer: C

Explanation:
The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)

NEW QUESTION # 76
Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation

Short-range wireless:
Adaptive Network Technology+ (ANT+): ANT+ is a proprietary multicast wireless sensor network technology primarily used in personal wearables, such as sports and fitness sensors.
Bluetooth/Bluetooth Low-Energy (BLE): Bluetooth is a low-power, short-range communications technology primarily designed for point-to-point communications between wireless devices in a hub-and-spoke topology. BLE (also known as Bluetooth Smart or Bluetooth 4.0+) devices consume significantly less power than Bluetooth devices and can access the internet directly through 6LoWPAN connectivity.
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) over Low-Power Wireless Personal Area Networks (6LoWPAN): 6LoWPAN allows IPv6 traffic to be carried over low-power wireless mesh networks. 6LoWPAN is designed for nodes and applications that require wireless internet connectivity at relatively low data rates in small form factors, such as smart light bulbs and smart meters.
Wi-Fi/802.11: The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) defines the 802 LAN protocol standards. 802.11 is the set of standards used for Wi-Fi networks typically operating in the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands. The most common implementations today include:
802.11n (labeled Wi-Fi 4 by the Wi-Fi Alliance), which operates on both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands at ranges from 54Mbps to 600Mbps
802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), which operates on the 5GHz band at ranges from 433Mbps to 3.46 Gbps
802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6), which operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands (and all bands between 1 and 6GHz, when they become available for 802.11 use) at ranges up to 11Gbps Z-Wave: Z-Wave is a low-energy wireless mesh network protocol primarily used for home automation applications such as smart appliances, lighting control, security systems, smart thermostats, windows and locks, and garage doors.
Zigbee/802.14: Zigbee is a low-cost, low-power wireless mesh network protocol based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard. Zigbee is the dominant protocol in the low-power networking market, with a large installed base in industrial environments and smart home products.