Latest 2022 Realistic Verified CRISC Dumps - 100% Free CRISC Exam Dumps [Q33-Q53]

Latest 2022 Realistic Verified CRISC Dumps - 100% Free CRISC Exam Dumps

Get 2022 Updated Free ISACA CRISC Exam Questions & Answer

The benefit in Obtaining the CRISC Exam Certification

Allows candidate capability in IS audit, control and security profession.
CRISC can likewise offer a profession jump as an advancement by separating candidates from different people who are not CRISC confirmed
A internationally accepted as the characteristic of excellence for the IS audit professional.
CRISC supports candidate knowledge and experience in the assigned region and shows their capacity for responding to any challenge.
Candidates with this certification for the best part they earn 47.54% higher pay.

NEW QUESTION 33
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk developer?

A. The organization-wide control budget is expanded
B. Corporate incident escalation protocols are established
C. Risk appetite cascades to business unit management
D. Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 34
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A. Reducing the need for audit reviews
B. Improving control process efficiency
C. Complying with functional requirements
D. Facilitating continuous control monitoring

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 35
Which of the following statements are true for risk communication? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. It defines the issue of what a stakeholder does, not just what it says.
B. It requires investigation and interconnectivity of procedural, legal, social, political, and economic factors.
C. It requires a practical and deliberate scheduling approach to identify stakeholders, actions, and concerns.
D. It helps in allocating the information concerning risk among the decision-makers.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk communication is the process of exchanging information and views about risks among stakeholders, such as groups, individuals, and institutions. Risk communication is mostly concerned with the nature of risk or expressing concerns, views, or reactions to risk managers or institutional bodies for risk management. The key plan to consider and communicate risk is to categorize and impose priorities, and acquire suitable measures to reduce risks. It is important throughout any crisis to put across multifaceted information in a simple and clear manner.
Risk communication helps in switching or allocating the information concerning risk among the decision- maker and the stakeholders.
Risk communication can be explained more clearly with the help of the following definitions:
It defines the issue of what a group does, not just what it says.

It must take into account the valuable element in user's perceptions of risk.

It will be more valuable if it is thought of as conversation, not instruction.

Risk communication is a fundamental and continuing element of the risk analysis exercise, and the involvement of the stakeholder group is from the beginning. It makes the stakeholders conscious of the process at each phase of the risk assessment. It helps to guarantee that the restrictions, outcomes, consequence, logic, and risk assessment are undoubtedly understood by all the stakeholders.
Incorrect Answers:
B: It helps in allocating the information concerning risk not only among the decision-makers but also stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION 36
An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A. Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).
B. Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained
C. Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.
D. Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 37
Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?

A. Risk ownership
B. Impact on business
C. Number of control failures
D. Threat to IT

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 38
What are the steps that are involved in articulating risks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. Identify the response
B. Interpret independent risk assessment findings.
C. Identify business opportunities.
D. Communicate risk analysis results and report risk management activities and the state of compliance.

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Following are the tasks that are involved in articulating risk:
Communicate risk analysis results.

Report risk management activities and the state of compliance.

Interpret independent risk assessment findings.

Identify business opportunities.

NEW QUESTION 39
Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

A. Assess the vulnerability management process
B. Conduct a control self-assessment
C. Conduct a vulnerability assessment
D. Reassess the inherent risk of the target

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 40
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?

A. Providing peer benchmarking results
B. Assessing risk with no controls in place
C. Showing projected residual risk
D. Assessing risk with current controls in place

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 41
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have identified several risks. Which of the following responses to risk is considered the MOST appropriate?

A. Avoiding
B. Accepting
C. Any of the above
D. Insuring

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The appropriate response to the risk is decided by the risk itself, the company's attitude and appetite of risk, and the threat and opportunity combination of the risk.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Depending upon the condition, that is, the risk itself, the company's attitude and appetite of risk, and the threat and opportunity combination of the risk, these response options can be chosen.

NEW QUESTION 42
You are the project manager of GHT project. You want to perform post-project review of your project. What is the BEST time to perform post-project review by you and your project development team to access the effectiveness of the project?

A. Project is about to complete
B. Immediately after the completion of the project
C. Project is completed and the system has been in production for a sufficient time period
D. During the project

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
The project development team and appropriate end users perform a post-project review jointly after the project has been completed and the system has been in production for a sufficient time period to assess its effectiveness.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The post-project review of project for accessing effectiveness cannot be done during the project as effectiveness can only evaluated after setting the project in process of production.
C: It is not done immediately after the completion of the project as its effectiveness cannot be measured until the system has been in production for certain time period.
D: Post-project review for evaluating the effectiveness of the project can only be done after the completion of the project and the project is in production phase.

NEW QUESTION 43
Capability maturity models are the models that are used by the enterprise to rate itself in terms of the least mature level to the most mature level. Which of the following capability maturity levels shows that the enterprise does not recognize the need to consider the risk management or the business impact from IT risk?

A. Level 0
B. Level 3
C. Level 2
D. Explanation:
0 nonexistent: An enterprise's risk management capability maturity level is 0 when:
The enterprise does not recognize the need to consider the risk management or the business
impact from IT risk.
Decisions involving risk lack credible information.
Awareness of external requirements for risk management and integration with enterprise risk
management (ERM) do not exists.
E. Level 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
A, and C are incorrect. These all are higher levels of capability maturity model and in
this enterprise is mature enough to recognize the importance of risk management.

NEW QUESTION 44
Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management?

A. Variance and trend analysis
B. Explanation:
There is only one tool and technique available for Fred to plan risk management: planning meetings and analysis. Planning Meeting and Analysis is a tool and technique in the Plan Risk Management process. Planning meetings are organized by the project teams to develop the risk management plan. Attendees at these meetings include the following: Project manager Selected project team members Stakeholders Anybody in the organization with the task to manage risk planning Sophisticated plans for conducting the risk management activities are defined in these meetings, responsibilities related to risk management are assigned, and risk contingency reserve application approaches are established and reviewed.
C. Planning meetings and analysis
D. Data gathering and representation techniques
E. Information gathering techniques

Answer: C

Explanation:
D, and B are incorrect. These are not plan risk management tools and techniques.

NEW QUESTION 45
To effectively support business decisions, an IT risk register MUST:

A. be reviewed by the IT steering committee.
B. reflect the results of risk assessments.
C. be available to operational groups.
D. effectively support a business maturity model.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 46
An organization has outsourced a critical process involving highly regulated data to a third party with servers located in a foreign country. Who is accountable for the confidentiality of this data?

A. Data custodian
B. Third-party data custodian
C. Regional office executive
D. Data owner

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 47
Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A. Informed consent
B. Data breach protection
C. Cross border controls
D. Business impact analysis (BIA)

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume D

NEW QUESTION 48
Which among the following acts as a trigger for risk response process?

A. Risk level equates risk appetite
B. Risk level equates the risk tolerance
C. Risk level increase above risk tolerance
D. Explanation:
The risk response process is triggered when a risk exceeds the enterprise's risk tolerance level. The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives. Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders. A process should be in place to review and approve any exceptions to such standards.
E. Risk level increases above risk appetite

Answer: C

Explanation:
and A are incorrect. Risk appetite level is not relevant in triggering of risk response process. Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the followingtwo major factors should be taken into account: The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc. The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment. Answer: D is incorrect. Risk response process is triggered when the risk level increases the risk tolerance level of the enterprise, and not when it just equates the risk tolerance level.

NEW QUESTION 49
When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

A. control adheres to regulatory standards.
B. residual risk objectives have been achieved.
C. business process objectives have been met.
D. control process is designed effectively.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 50
Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

A. Transaction logging
B. A control self-assessment
C. Benchmarking against peers
D. Continuous monitoring

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 51
Which among the following acts as a trigger for risk response process?

A. Risk level equates risk appetite
B. Risk level equates the risk tolerance
C. Risk level increase above risk tolerance
D. Risk level increases above risk appetite

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation
Explanation:
The risk response process is triggered when a risk exceeds the enterprise's risk tolerance level. The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives.
Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders. A process should be in place to review and approve any exceptions to such standards.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Risk appetite level is not relevant in triggering of risk response process. Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission. This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the following two major factors should be taken into account:
* The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc.
* The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment.
D: Risk response process is triggered when the risk level increases the risk tolerance level of the enterprise, and not when it just equates the risk tolerance level.

NEW QUESTION 52
You are the project manager of your enterprise. You have identified new threats, and then evaluated the ability of existing controls to mitigate risk associated with new threats. You noticed that the existing control is not efficient in mitigating these new risks. What are the various steps you could take in this case?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Education of staff or business partners
B. Apply more controls
C. Modify of the technical architecture
D. Deployment of a threat-specific countermeasure

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As new threats are identified and prioritized in terms of impact, the first step is to evaluate the ability of existing controls to mitigate risk associated with new threats and if it does not work then in that case facilitate the:
Modification of the technical architecture

Deployment of a threat-specific countermeasure

Implementation of a compensating mechanism or process until mitigating controls are developed

Education of staff or business partners

Incorrect Answers:
D: Applying more controls is not the good solution. They usually complicate the condition.